Jeremiah 25:10-12
Because Jeremiah 25:11 says "this land must become a
devastated place," the Watchtower Society assumes that this prophecy has its fulfillment beginning at
Jerusalem's capture, which is incorrect. What has escaped their notice is that the prophecy does not
pertain just to the land of Judah, for it says, "these nations will have to serve the king of Babylon seventy
years," so according to verse 9, "against this land (Judah)...and against all these nations round about..."
Moreover, the Society described this period as one of complete desolation, "without an inhabitant."
Servitude may sometimes include captivity or desolation, but it shouldn't always be interpreted that way.
The yoke of an oppressive regime can come upon lesser nations prior to, and sometimes without any
subsequent wholesale destruction. A land can be spoken of as being "desolated" even though its
inhabitants remain due to repeated attacks against them by pillagers who seek to decimate a defenseless
people. Such is what occurred in the days of Babylon. It must be emphasized again that the 70 years of
servitude pertained to "all nations round about;" not just Judah.
When did the servitude to Babylon for those nations begin? As far as
Babylonian power is concerned, history reveals that prior to 626 B.C., Babylon itself was under the yoke
of Assyria. But beginning that year, the Babylonians first drove the Assyrians out of their land, and by
610/609 B.C. they had captured Nineveh and the provincial capital of Harran, thus putting an end to
Assyrian domination as a world power. In so doing, Babylon took control of Assyrian territories which
included nations to the north of Judah (the 10 tribe kingdom being one) and later Judah itself. Thus it
could be said that the "nations" servitude to Babylon began in 609 B.C. The Society would
object to this date for this would mean that the 70 years ended in 639 B.C.; not 537 B.C., which the
Watchtower knows is the date that the Jews were released from captivity in Babylon.
Jeremiah 29:10
This verse says, "seventy years at Babylon" in the New World
Translation, but the Hebrew preposition "le", translated "at" by the Watchtower, generally means "for, to,
in regard to," and is rendered so in a number of modern translations. The seventy years "for" Babylon or
"in service to" Babylon did end in 539 B.C. when Babylonian supremacy came to a close. From
Jeremiah 25:12 we saw that "when seventy years have been fulfilled, I (Jehovah) shall call to
account the king of Babylon and against the nation." This "fulfillment" and "accounting" happened in 539
B.C. when Darius the Mede himself received the kingdom (Daniel 5:30,31). Therefore, the
seventy years given "for" Babylon were completed in 539 B.C.
The 70 years refer to the Babylonian supremacy; not to the Jewish
captivity, or to the desolation following the destruction of Jerusalem in 587 B.C. That this is what the
Hebrew text meant to say is also evident from the text that it is in agreement with Jeremiah's prophecy at
Jeremiah 25:11 on the 70 year "servitude." As long as the Babylonian king held supremacy,
other nations had to serve him.
As stated earlier, the Watchtower cites 7 passages which the say refer
to the 70 year prophecy, whereas in actuality, only 5 of these scripture texts can be used for that
application. The Jeremiah verses contain the prophecy itself. Two of the remaining three, Daniel
9:2 and II Chron. 36:20,21 can only be applied referentially, since neither gives any further
information about the prophecy.
The remaining 2 passages mentioning a 70 year period have nothing specifically to do with the 70 year prophecy of servitude to Babylon, for the 2 texts do not correspond to that 70 year period, though the Watchtower believes otherwise, neither text contains any reference to Jeremiah, as do Daniel 9:2 and II Chron. 36:20,21. They are merely allusions to 'seventy years past,' and are not relative to a given prophetic period or event. The first is:
Zechariah 1:7,12
As noticed, this was written in "the second year of Darius" which
even the Watchtower agrees corresponds to the year 520/519 B.C. Further, the "twenty-fourth day of the
eleventh month' would therefore be in February of 519 B.C. The Watchtower equates this 'seventy years'
with the 70 years of Jeremiah's prophecy. It is abundantly clear that this cannot be. Why?
For one thing, the angel's question about "denouncement" was asked
because Jehovah still (in 519 B.C.) had not shown mercy to the cities of Judah. If, as according to the
Watchtower, the denouncement had ended in 537 B.C., the angel surely would have known about it and
his question would have had no meaning. Also, if Jehovah had continued to show His displeasure for
about 18 more years, the entire period of hostility would be closer to 90 years; not 70. No, these two
overlapping 70 year periods (one prophecy; one recorded history) are separate and distinct in their purpose
and application:
(1) The prophetic 70 years of Jeremiah concern Judah and the
surrounding nations' servitude to Babylon. As was shown, the period of 'servitude' to Babylon began in
609 B.C. and ended with Babylon's fall in 539 B.C., for it is obvious that there could be no servitude to
Babylon had Babylon's power ended.
(2) Zechariah recorded 70 years of "indignation," "wrath," or "denouncement" of Judah alone; it's cities;
and it began at the time of siege and destruction of Jerusalem. By counting back 70 years from Zechariah's
writing in Zechariah 1:7,12, we come to 589 B.C., the year Nebuchadnezzar laid siege to
Jerusalem.
Zechariah 7: 1,5
This was written "in the fourth year of Darius," in 517 B.C. The Jew,
then, had been fasting and wailing over the loss of Jerusalem and its temple for 70 years, from the time of
Jerusalem's fall to Nebuchadnezzar in 587 B.C. If the destruction of Jerusalem is dated as 607 B.C., this
would again make the time of the observance of the 'fasts and wailings' 90 years rather than 70.
Several years before the destruction of Jerusalem, Jeremiah wrote a
letter to Jews already in Babylonian exile (Jer. 29:1,10) in which he mentioned the 70 years. If,
as the Watchtower supposes, the 70 years did not begin until the destruction of Jerusalem, why would
Jeremiah apply it to the exiles, who were still looking to free Jerusalem from captivity? If the 70 years
were not already in progress, why make application to them? Jeremiah wrote his letter 6 or 7 years prior to
Jerusalem's fall. Therefore, it is further evident that the 70 years be reckoned from a point before the
destruction, and even from a point before the writing of the letter.
Isaiah 23:15-18
This verse concerns itself with a seventy year prophecy against Tyre.
This may or may not have any connection to Jeremiah's prophecy.